The National Defence Academy (NDA) examination tests candidates on a wide range of subjects through the General Ability Test. Current affairs are an important part of General Knowledge preparation. Therefore, candidates preparing for NDA (II) 2026 exam should regularly revise important national and international events. Mastering Current Affairs for NDA 2 2026 Exam can easily secure you 40 to 60 marks in the GAT paper.
Previous Year Trend Analysis
Our analysis of the past three years of NDA papers reveals clear patterns. UPSC does not ask random facts; they target strategic themes. The depth of questions and weightage of specific category may be cange, it is not pre-defined by UPSC.
- Defence & Security (30–35%): Heavy focus on DRDO test-fires, naval acquisitions and joint military exercises.
- Government Schemes (20–25%): NITI Aayog reports, environmental schemes and infrastructure pushes like PM MITRA.
- International Affairs (20%): BRICS/ASEAN expansions and UN initiatives.
- Science & Environment (10–15%): ISRO missions, Ramsar sites and climate indices.
- Sports & Honors (10%): Major domestic tournaments (Ranji) and national civilian/military awards.
Current Affairs MCQs for NDA Exam
1. Questions based on Defence & Strategic Operations for NDA Exam 2026
DRDO & Indigenous Technology
Q1. The ‘Zorawar’ light tank, designed for high-altitude areas, is developed jointly by DRDO and:
(a) Tata Advanced Systems
(b) Larsen & Toubro
(c) Mahindra Defence
(d) Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Zorawar is an indigenous light tank developed by DRDO and L&T for deployment in high-altitude border regions like Ladakh.
Q2. ‘Astra’ is a state-of-the-art missile of which category?
(a) Surface-to-Air Missile
(b) Air-to-Air Missile
(c) Anti-Tank Guided Missile
(d) Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Astra is India’s first indigenously developed Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM).
Q3. With reference to the BrahMos Missile, consider the following statements:
- It is a supersonic cruise missile jointly developed by India’s DRDO and Russia’s NPOM.
- It can only be launched from land-based mobile launchers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because BrahMos is a multi-platform missile that can be launched from land, air, sea, and sub-sea platforms.
Q4. Consider the following statements regarding Project-75 of the Indian Navy:
- It involves the construction of six Scorpene-class conventional submarines.
- These submarines are being built at the Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai, with technology transfer from France.
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Scorpene-class submarines (Kalvari, Khanderi, Karanj, Vela, Vagir, Vagsheer) are being built under Project-75 in collaboration with France’s Naval Group.
Joint Military Exercises
Q5. Exercise ‘Dharma Guardian’ is an annual joint military exercise between India and:
(a) France
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Japan
(d) Indonesia
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Dharma Guardian is a crucial bilateral army exercise between India and Japan to enhance tactical interoperability.
Q6. The trilateral maritime exercise ‘Dosti-16’ involves India, Sri Lanka, and:
(a) Maldives
(b) Seychelles
(c) Mauritius
(d) Bangladesh
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Dosti is a biennial coast guard exercise conducted between India, Maldives and Sri Lanka to bolster regional maritime security.
Q7. Exercise ‘Mitra Shakti’ is conducted between the armed forces of India and:
(a) Nepal
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Bhutan
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer: (d)
Explanation: Mitra Shakti focuses on counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations between India and Sri Lanka.
Q8. Match List-I (Joint Military Exercise) with List-II (Partner Nation):
List-I
A. Varuna
B. Yudh Abhyas
C. Nomadic Elephant
D. SIMBEX List-II
- USA
- France
- Singapore
- Mongolia
Code:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Varuna is a naval exercise with France; Yudh Abhyas is with the USA; Nomadic Elephant with Mongolia; and SIMBEX is the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise.
Multilateral Air & Sea Exercises
Q9. Match List-I (Joint Exercise) with List-II (Participating Forces/Domain):
List-I
A. Exercise Malabar
B. Exercise Pitch Black
C. Exercise Khan Quest
D. Exercise Desert Cyclone
List-II
- Multilateral Air Exercise in Australia
- India-UAE Joint Military Exercise
- Quad Navies Maritime Exercise
- Multinational Peacekeeping Exercise in Mongolia
Code:
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Malabar is the Quad naval exercise; Pitch Black is hosted by the Royal Australian Air Force; Khan Quest is in Mongolia; Desert Cyclone is the inaugural joint army drill between India and the UAE.
Naval & Aerial Advancements
Q10. INS Arighaat, recently in the news, is a:
(a) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine
(b) Guided-missile destroyer
(c) Aircraft carrier
(d) Amphibious warfare ship
Answer: (a)
Explanation: INS Arighaat is India’s second indigenously built SSBN, strengthening the nation’s nuclear triad capabilities.
Q11. The C-295 transport aircraft manufacturing facility, a joint venture between Airbus and Tata, is located in:
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Vadodara
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Kanpur
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Vadodara facility is India’s first private sector final assembly line for military transport aircraft.
Q12. Project 15B of the Indian Navy is related to the construction of:
(a) Scorpene-class submarines
(b) Visakhapatnam-class stealth destroyers
(c) Brahmaputra-class frigates
(d) Nuclear icebreakers
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Project 15B involves building four state-of-the-art stealth guided-missile destroyers, starting with INS Visakhapatnam.
Q13. The ‘Mission Divyastra’ conducted by DRDO is associated with which missile system?
(a) BrahMos-II
(b) Agni-5 with MIRV technology
(c) Prithvi-III
(d) Nirbhay Cruise Missile
Answer: (b)
Explanation: DRDO flight-tested Agni-5 with Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology, allowing one missile to deploy multiple warheads.
Integrated Drills & Maritime Security
Q14. Match List-I (Tri-Service / Integrated Exercise) with List-II (Key Focus / Region):
List-I
A. Bharat Shakti
B. Poorvi Prahar
C. Sagar Kavach
D. Cyber Suraksha
List-II
- Integrated coastal security drill
- Tri-service live-fire firepower demonstration at Pokhran
- Multi-agency cyber defence and infrastructure protection
- Joint Army-Navy-Air Force operational readiness in Eastern Theatre
Code:
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Exercise Bharat Shakti showcased indigenous defence assets at Pokhran; Poorvi Prahar tested joint operations in the Northeast; Sagar Kavach validated coastal security; and Cyber Suraksha drilled national cyber-response units.
Q15. Consider the following statements regarding the SAMAR Air Defence System:
- SAMAR stands for Surface-to-Air Missile for Assured Retaliation.
- It re-purposes refurbished vintage Vympel R-73 and R-27 air-to-air missiles for surface air-defence roles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Developed by IAF maintenance units, the SAMAR-1 system successfully repurposes expired air-to-air missile stocks into short-range surface-to-air missile platforms.
Military Operations & Rescue Missions
Q16. ‘Operation Sadbhavana’ is a unique civic action initiative undertaken by the Indian Army primarily in:
(a) Naxal-affected areas of Bastar
(b) Union Territories of J&K and Ladakh
(c) The Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) The coastal areas of Gujarat
Answer: (b)
Explanation: It aims to win the hearts and minds of the local populace in J&K and Ladakh through education and infrastructure projects.
Modernization & Strategic Initiatives
Q17. With reference to the ‘Zorawar’ Light Tank, consider the following statements:
- It is designed to operate effectively in high-altitude terrain like Eastern Ladakh.
- It has been developed jointly by DRDO and Larsen & Toubro (L&T).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Zorawar is an indigenous lightweight tank designed for high-altitude mobility and combat capability along rugged mountainous borders.
Q18. ‘Mission Mausam’, approved by the Union Cabinet, is implemented primarily by which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Earth Sciences
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Mission Mausam is an initiative under the Ministry of Earth Sciences to significantly upgrade India’s weather forecasting systems, radar networks, and climate resilience models.
2. National Affairs & Governance: Current Affairs for NDA 2 2026
NITI Aayog & Economic Initiatives
Q19. The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), aimed at promoting a culture of innovation, is set up under:
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Ministry of Education
(d) PMO
Answer: (b)
Explanation: AIM is NITI Aayog’s flagship initiative to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across schools and universities.
Q20. The ‘Vibrant Villages Programme’ focuses on the comprehensive development of:
(a) Coastal fishing villages
(b) Villages along the northern land border
(c) Tribal hamlets in central India
(d) Drought-prone regions of the Deccan
Answer: (b)
Explanation: It aims to develop infrastructure and prevent migration in border villages primarily along the Indo-China border.
Q21. PM MITRA Parks relate to which one of the following industries?
(a) Automobile manufacturing
(b) Semiconductor fabrication
(c) Textile and apparel
(d) Pharmaceutical processing
Answer: (c)
Explanation: PM MITRA (Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel) parks aim to create world-class industrial infrastructure for the textile sector.
Q22. Match List-I (Government Scheme) with List-II (Associated Ministry):
List-I
A. PM MITRA
B. PM Surya Ghar Yojana
C. PM KISAN
D. Atal Innovation Mission
List-II
- Ministry of Agriculture
- NITI Aayog
- Ministry of Textiles
- Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
Code:
(a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: PM MITRA is related to textiles; Surya Ghar to MNRE; PM KISAN to Agriculture; and AIM operates under NITI Aayog.
Clean Energy & Infrastructure
Q23. The ‘PM-eBus Sewa’ scheme aims to deploy 10,000 electric buses across Indian cities primarily through which operational model?
(a) Fully Government-Owned Model
(b) Public-Private Partnership (PPP) Model
(c) Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) route
(d) Build-Own-Operate-Transfer (BOOT) by State Discoms
Answer: (b)
Explanation: PM-eBus Sewa deploys 10,000 electric buses under the Public-Private Partnership (PPP) model to promote green mobility in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities.
Q24. The ‘PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana’ provides subsidies for installing:
(a) Biogas digesters
(b) Wind turbines
(c) Rooftop solar panels
(d) Geothermal pumps
Answer: (c)
Explanation: This scheme subsidizes rooftop solar installations to provide up to 300 units of free electricity to households.
Q25. The ‘National Green Hydrogen Mission’ is implemented under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(c) Ministry of Power
(d) Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The MNRE is the nodal ministry for making India a global hub for green hydrogen production and export.
Infrastructure & Digital Reforms
Q26. Consider the following statements about the Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen) Phase-II:
- Its primary objective is to sustain Open Defecation Free (ODF) status.
- It focuses heavily on Solid and Liquid Waste Management (SLWM) in rural areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Phase II focuses on transforming ODF villages into ODF Plus villages by implementing effective solid and liquid waste management systems.
Q27. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘National Quantum Mission (NQM)’:
- It aims to develop quantum computers with 50 to 1000 physical qubits.
- It is being spearheaded by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) exclusively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because NQM is implemented under the Department of Science & Technology (DST), Ministry of Science and Technology.
Q28. The ‘One Nation, One Student ID’ initiative launched by the Ministry of Education is officially known as:
(a) APAAR ID
(b) PRAN ID
(c) DIKSHA Card
(d) SWAYAM Code
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry (APAAR) serves as an all-in-one digital identity card for students tracking academic records from pre-primary through higher education.
Q29. National Space Day is officially celebrated across India annually on which date?
(a) 15th August
(b) 23rd August
(c) 2nd September
(d) 11th May
Answer: (b)
Explanation: August 23 is designated as National Space Day to commemorate the historic landing of Chandrayaan-3’s Vikram Lander at the lunar South Pole point (Shiv Shakti Point).
3. International Affairs & Diplomacy: NDA 2026 Current Affairs MCQs
Global Summits & Expansions
Q30. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Quad’ grouping:
- The Quad consists of India, Australia, the USA and Japan.
- It is a formal military alliance equivalent to NATO in the Indo-Pacific region.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because Quad is a diplomatic and strategic dialogue forum, not a formal mutual-defense military treaty like NATO.
Q31. Consider the following statements regarding the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO):
- Belarus recently became the 10th full member state of the SCO.
- The permanent Secretariat of the SCO is located in Beijing, China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Belarus was officially admitted as the 10th member state, following Iran’s admission. The SCO Secretariat is headquartered in Beijing.
Q32. Match List-I (International Organization) with List-II (Headquarters):
List-I
A. International Solar Alliance (ISA)
B. New Development Bank (NDB)
C. International Maritime Organization (IMO)
D. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO)
List-II
- Shanghai, China
- Gurugram, India
- Geneva, Switzerland
- London, United Kingdom
Code:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: ISA is based in Gurugram; NDB (BRICS Bank) in Shanghai; IMO in London; and WIPO in Geneva.
Global Partnerships & Treaties
Q33. Consider the following statements regarding the Colombo Security Conclave (CSC):
- It is a regional maritime security grouping comprising India, Sri Lanka, the Maldives, and Mauritius as member states.
- Bangladesh was recently admitted as its fifth full member state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The Colombo Security Conclave formalized its founding charter with India, Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Mauritius, welcoming Bangladesh as a full member to enhance Indian Ocean security.
Q34. Match List-I (Global Agreement / Initiative) with List-II (Core Subject):
List-I
A. High Seas Treaty (BBNJ)
B. Global Biofuels Alliance
C. Kunming-Montreal Framework
D. Indo-Pacific Economic Framework
List-II
- Supply chain resilience and clean economy
- Halting and reversing global biodiversity loss
- Marine biodiversity conservation beyond national jurisdiction
- Accelerating global adoption of sustainable biofuels
Code:
(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(b) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(c) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: BBNJ safeguards international waters; GBA promotes sustainable fuels; Kunming-Montreal sets biodiversity conservation targets; and IPEF coordinates economic standards.
Treaties & Global Declarations
Q35. With reference to the ‘Bletchley Declaration’, consider the following statements:
- It focuses on the safety and responsible development of Artificial Intelligence (AI).
- India is not a signatory to this declaration.
Select the correct answer:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is incorrect because India is among the 28 countries that signed the Bletchley Declaration at the UK AI Safety Summit.
Q36. Match List-I (Global Index) with List-II (Publishing Organization):
List-I
A. Global Innovation Index
B. World Press Freedom Index
C. Human Development Index
D. Global Gender Gap Report
List-II
- UNDP
- WIPO (World Intellectual Property Organization)
- World Economic Forum (WEF)
- Reporters Without Borders
Code:
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: WIPO publishes the Innovation Index. Reporters Without Borders publishes the Press Freedom Index. UNDP releases the HDI, and WEF publishes the Gender Gap Report.
Global Connectivity & Geopolitics
Q37. The proposed India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) includes which two distinct corridors?
(a) Northern corridor connecting the Gulf to Europe and Eastern corridor connecting India to the Gulf
(b) Southern corridor connecting Africa and Western corridor connecting Central Asia
(c) Arctic Maritime corridor and Red Sea route
(d) Trans-Saharan corridor and Levant corridor
Answer: (a)
Explanation: IMEC consists of the East Corridor (connecting India to the Arabian Gulf) and the Northern Corridor (connecting the Gulf to Europe via rail and shipping networks).
Q38. Which country hosted the historic 75th Anniversary NATO Summit?
(a) Lithuania (Vilnius)
(b) United States (Washington, D.C.)
(c) Belgium (Brussels)
(d) United Kingdom (London)
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 75th anniversary summit of NATO took place in Washington, D.C., where the original North Atlantic Treaty was signed in 1949.
Q39. The Bletchley Declaration is an international agreement concerning:
(a) Phasing out coal power
(b) Safe development of Artificial Intelligence (AI)
(c) Maritime security in the Indo-Pacific
(d) Nuclear non-proliferation
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Signed at the UK AI Safety Summit, it establishes international cooperation on mitigating the risks of frontier AI.
4. Science, Technology & Environment
Space Exploration
Q40. ISRO’s Aditya-L1 mission is designed to study the:
(a) Lunar south pole
(b) Solar atmosphere and corona
(c) Martian surface minerals
(d) Asteroid belt
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Aditya-L1 is India’s first space-based observatory placed in a halo orbit around Lagrange point 1 to study the Sun.
Q41. The XPoSat mission launched by ISRO aims to study:
(a) Exoplanet atmospheres
(b) X-ray polarization from cosmic sources
(c) Solar flares
(d) Earth’s magnetic field
Answer: (b)
Explanation: X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat) is India’s first dedicated polarimetry mission to study the dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources.
Space Missions & Approvals
Q42. Consider the following statements regarding ISRO’s future space missions:
- The Union Cabinet approved the Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM), nicknamed ‘Shukrayaan’, to study the atmosphere and surface of Venus.
- The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) aims to set up an operational indigenous space station module in low Earth orbit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. India formally approved the Venus Orbiter Mission and the expansion of the Gaganyaan program to establish the first module of the Bharatiya Antariksh Station.
Q43. Match List-I (Spacecraft/Telescope) with List-II (Objective/Agency):
List-I
A. James Webb Space Telescope
B. Euclid Space Telescope
C. Chang’e-6
D. Tanager-1
List-II
- Far side of the Moon sample return mission (CNSA)
- Tracking point-source methane and carbon dioxide emissions
- Mapping the dark universe and dark energy (ESA)
- Infrared deep-space astronomical observations (NASA/ESA/CSA)
Code:
(a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(c) A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
(d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: JWST observes deep infrared cosmic sources; Euclid maps dark matter; Chang’e-6 retrieved samples from the Moon’s far side; Tanager-1 tracks greenhouse gas emissions.
Space Missions & Artificial Intelligence
Q44. ‘Hanooman’, recently seen in science and technology news, is a:
(a) Deep-sea submersible exploration vehicle
(b) Indigenous Indic AI Large Language Model (LLM) series
(c) High-altitude pseudo-satellite drone
(d) Supercomputing facility installed at IIT Bombay
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Hanooman is a suite of Indic AI models developed by BharatGPT ecosystem in collaboration with IIT Bombay to support multimodal inputs in Indian languages.
Q45. Consider the following statements regarding the NISAR mission:
- It is a joint Earth-observing satellite mission between ISRO and NASA.
- It uses dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar to map Earth’s land and ice masses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is designed to observe complex Earth processes, including ecosystem disturbances and natural hazards.
Q46. Match List-I (ISRO Mission) with List-II (Primary Objective):
List-I
A. Aditya-L1
B. Gaganyaan
C. Chandrayaan-3
D. XPoSat
List-II
- Lunar surface exploration
- Solar observation
- X-ray polarization of cosmic sources
- Human spaceflight program
Code:
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Aditya-L1 is for the Sun. Gaganyaan is India’s manned space mission. Chandrayaan-3 is for the Moon, and XPoSat studies celestial X-ray sources.
Climate & Ecology
Q47. As of August 2026, which Indian state has the highest number of Ramsar (Wetland) sites?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Odisha
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Tamil Nadu leads the country with the maximum number of internationally recognized 20 Ramsar wetland sites.
Q48. Project Cheetah in India saw the translocation of cheetahs primarily into which national park?
(a) Jim Corbett National Park
(b) Kuno National Park
(c) Kanha Tiger Reserve
(d) Gir National Park
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh was selected for the historic reintroduction of African cheetahs in India.
Q49. According to recent climate reports, which greenhouse gas is primarily targeted by the ‘Global Methane Pledge’?
(a) Carbon Dioxide
(b) Methane
(c) Nitrous Oxide
(d) Ozone
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The pledge aims to reduce global methane emissions by at least 30% from 2020 levels by 2030 to slow near-term warming.
Biodiversity & Climate
Q50. Consider the following statements about India’s Ramsar Sites:
- The Ramsar Convention aims at the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
- Chilika Lake in Odisha was the first Indian wetland of international importance under this convention.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. Chilika Lake (Odisha) and Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) were the first Indian sites to be placed on the Ramsar list in 1981.
Q51. Match List-I (Newly declared GI Tags) with List-II (State):
List-I
A. Cuttack Rupa Tarakasi (Silver Filigree)
B. Kaji Nemu (Lemon)
C. Basohli Painting
D. Banaras Thandai
List-II
- Assam
- Jammu & Kashmir
- Uttar Pradesh
- Odisha
Code:
(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Rupa Tarakasi belongs to Odisha. Kaji Nemu is the state fruit of Assam. Basohli Painting is from J&K, and Banaras Thandai was recently granted a GI tag from UP.
Wildlife & Ecology
Q52. The ‘Status of Leopards in India’ report noted which state as housing the highest leopard population? (a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh retains the highest leopard population in India, followed by Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
Q53. Match List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary / Park) with List-II (State):
List-I
A. Eravikulam National Park
B. Raimona National Park
C. Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary
D. Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary
List-II
- Assam
- Kerala
- Delhi-NCR
- Odisha
Code:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Eravikulam is in Kerala (home to Nilgiri Tahr); Raimona is in Assam; Debrigarh is in Odisha; Asola Bhatti is in the Delhi-NCR Ridge area.
Ecological & Environmental Milestones
Q54. Which national park in India recently celebrated 50 years of Project Tiger with the release of the updated tiger census?
(a) Bandipur National Park
(b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Ranthambore National Park
(d) Sundarbans National Park
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Bandipur National Park in Karnataka completed 50 years of Project Tiger, highlighting long-term conservation gains across the Western Ghats complex.
Q55. The term ‘Bio-Tracer’ or ‘Bactrocera’, frequently reported in agricultural science news, refers to:
(a) A newly engineered nitrogen-fixing transgenic rice
(b) Invasive fruit fly species impacting horticultural crops
(c) Bio-fertilizers formulated for alkaline soil reclamation
(d) Synthetic pheromone traps for locust swarms
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Bactrocera species represent invasive agricultural fruit fly pests that affect commercial fruit orchards and vegetable production.
5. Sports, Awards & Culture
Major Sporting Events
Q56. Who won the Men’s Singles title at the Wimbledon Championships?
(a) Novak Djokovic
(b) Carlos Alcaraz
(c) Jannik Sinner
(d) Daniil Medvedev
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Carlos Alcaraz claimed the prestigious Wimbledon title, cementing his status in the new era of Grand Slam tennis.
Q57. Which domestic team clinched the recent Ranji Trophy title?
(a) Saurashtra
(b) Mumbai
(c) Vidarbha
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Mumbai extended its dominant record in Indian domestic cricket by winning their 42nd Ranji Trophy title.
Q58. The Santosh Trophy is a premier national tournament associated with which sport?
(a) Hockey
(b) Football
(c) Cricket
(d) Badminton
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Santosh Trophy is an annual Indian football tournament contested by states and government institutions.
Awards & Honors
Q59. Who was awarded India’s highest civilian honor, the Bharat Ratna, for his contributions to agricultural science?
(a) Verghese Kurien
(b) M.S. Swaminathan
(c) C.N.R. Rao
(d) Norman Borlaug
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Dr. M.S. Swaminathan, the chief architect of India’s Green Revolution, was posthumously awarded the Bharat Ratna.
Q60. The prestigious Jnanpith Award is given for outstanding contribution to:
(a) Science and Technology
(b) Cinema
(c) Literature
(d) Classical Music
Answer: (c)
Explanation: The Jnanpith Award is India’s highest literary award, presented annually to authors writing in recognized Indian languages.
Q61. Which Indian feature film won the Best Feature Film award at the recent National Film Awards?
(a) Kantara
(b) Rocketry: The Nambi Effect
(c) RRR
(d) Sardar Udham
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Rocketry, directed by R. Madhavan, won the top honor at the National Film Awards for its biographical depiction of an ISRO scientist.
Awards & Decorations
Q62. Consider the following statements regarding the Gallantry Awards in India:
- The Param Vir Chakra is India’s highest wartime gallantry award.
- The Ashoka Chakra is the highest peacetime gallantry award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. The hierarchy for wartime is Param Vir Chakra, Maha Vir Chakra, Vir Chakra. For peacetime, it is Ashoka Chakra, Kirti Chakra, and Shaurya Chakra.
Q63. Match List-I (Trophy/Tournament) with List-II (Associated Sport):
List-I
A. Thomas Cup
B. Santosh Trophy
C. Ranji Trophy
D. Davis Cup
List-II
- Football
- Cricket
- Tennis
- Badminton
Code:
(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(b) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
Answer: (a)
Explanation: The Thomas Cup is a premier international men’s team Badminton championship. Santosh Trophy is domestic Football. Ranji Trophy is domestic Cricket, and the Davis Cup is international team Tennis.
Global Sports Honors
Q64. Who won the Men’s Singles title at the Australian Open 2026/recent Grand Slam cycle?
(a) Carlos Alcaraz
(b) Jannik Sinner
(c) Alexander Zverev
(d) Daniil Medvedev
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Jannik Sinner secured the Men’s Singles title at the Australian Open, marking his maiden Grand Slam triumph and solidifying his global top ranking.
Q65. The 45th FIDE Chess Olympiad was hosted by which city?
(a) Chennai, India
(b) Budapest, Hungary
(c) Tashkent, Uzbekistan
(d) Batumi, Georgia
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The 45th Chess Olympiad was hosted in Budapest, Hungary, where Indian grandmasters produced historic medal-winning performances in both Open and Women’s sections.
National Awards & Heritage
Q66. Who was conferred the prestigious Dadasaheb Phalke Award for exemplary contribution to Indian cinema?
(a) Waheeda Rehman
(b) Mithun Chakraborty
(c) Asha Parekh
(d) Rajinikanth
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Veteran actor Mithun Chakraborty was honored with the Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award for his iconic contribution to Indian cinema.
Q67. The Moidams of the Ahom Dynasty, recently inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage list, are located in:
(a) Nagaland
(b) Assam
(c) Manipur
(d) Tripura
Answer: (b)
Explanation: The Charaideo Moidams—mound-burial systems of the Ahom dynasty in Assam—were inscribed as India’s 43rd UNESCO World Heritage Site under the cultural category.
Olympic & Paralympic Games
Q68. Consider the following statements regarding India’s performance at the Paris 2024 Olympic and Paralympic Games:
- India achieved its highest-ever medal tally in Paralympic history, crossing the 25-medal mark.
- Shooter Avani Lekhara became the first Indian woman to win two Paralympic gold medals across editions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Explanation: Both statements are correct. India concluded the Paris Paralympics with a record 29 medals, and Avani Lekhara defended her shooting gold to become a double Paralympic champion.
Q69. Who became the youngest challenger in chess history to qualify for the World Chess Championship title match after winning the FIDE Candidates Tournament?
(a) R. Praggnanandhaa
(b) D. Gukesh
(c) Arjun Erigaisi
(d) Nihal Sarin
Answer: (b)
Explanation: Grandmaster Dommaraju Gukesh made history at age 17 by winning the FIDE Candidates tournament in Toronto to challenge for the undisputed World Chess Championship.
Literary & Cultural Honors
Q70. The prestigious Saraswati Samman for outstanding literary work in an Indian language was conferred upon:
(a) Prabha Varma
(b) Sivasankari
(c) Ramdarash Mishra
(d) Gyan Chaturvedi
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Renowned Malayalam poet Prabha Varma was selected for the Saraswati Samman for his verse novel Roudra Sathwikam.
Q71. Match List-I (Literary Award) with List-II (Institution / Trust):
List-I
A. Jnanpith Award
B. Saraswati Samman
C. Sahitya Akademi Award
D. Booker Prize
List-II
- K.K. Birla Foundation
- Bharatiya Jnanpith
- Booker Prize Foundation (UK)
- Sahitya Akademi (Ministry of Culture)
Code:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(c) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Answer: (a)
Explanation: Jnanpith is awarded by Bharatiya Jnanpith; Saraswati Samman and Vyas Samman by K.K. Birla Foundation; Sahitya Akademi by India’s National Academy of Letters; and Booker Prize in the UK.
Final Words
In conclusion, mastering the Current Affairs for NDA Exam is not just about clearing a paper; it’s about developing the awareness expected of a future Armed Forces officer. By following the strategies outlined above, you can confidently turn this section into your strongest asset. Don’t forget to regularly visit thelucknowclasses.com for our latest study materials, mock tests, and daily updates tailored specifically for NDA aspirants. Trust your preparation, stay consistent with your revisions, and let The Lucknow Classes guide you to success!
Note: Current affairs are dynamic by nature. While we make every effort to ensure the practice questions and facts in this blog are accurate at the time of publishing, information can occasionally become outdated due to new government announcements or global events. We highly recommend cross-verifying key facts and relying on the latest official notifications during the final weeks of your NDA preparation. If you spot a question that needs an update, let us know through Contact Us page!
Ans. Focus primarily on joint military exercises, defense acquisitions, and missile/space tests by DRDO and ISRO. Complement these with major government schemes, international summits, bilateral pacts, and top sports or national awards.
Ans. Cover the last 7 to 9 months, as this core window accounts for nearly 80% of questions. Focus your daily revision strictly on defense updates, joint military exercises, and major national policies.
